UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 11 to August 17, 2024 (2024)

1. It was first discovered in humans in Nigeria.

2. It is not transmitted from animals to humans.

3. The vaccines developed for smallpox are up to 80% effective against mpox.

4. The World Health Organization (WHO) classified mpox as a global public health emergency.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

—Mpox, a viral disease previously known as monkeypox, has recently garnered significant global attention due to its increasing spread and the emergence of new variants.

—It is a self-limiting disease but can lead to death, especially among children and those with weak immune systems.

— The World Health Organization (WHO) classified mpox as a global public health emergency. This comes after a surge in cases in the Democratic Republic of Congo, with the virus spreading to neighbouring countries. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

—Originally discovered in the late 1950s, the virus was misattributed to monkeys because it was first identified in a laboratory setting in Denmark. However, researchers now believe that rodents are the primary reservoir of the virus.

—Mpox was first discovered in humans in 1970 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC). Over the decades, mpox cases have arisen intermittently in many African countries, with occasional outbreaks in non-African regions as a result of international travel and the importation of infected animals. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— The vaccines developed for smallpox are up to 80 per cent effective against mpox. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

—The current issue derives from the spread of MPXV clade Ib, which is primarily transmitted sexually.

—Historically, clade I infections spread through zoonotic spillover episodes, which occur when animals and humans are in close proximity. Clade Ia infections that spread in this manner continue to impact areas of DRC where the disease was endemic. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs), consider the following statements:

1. It is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages.

2. They can carry satellites weighing up to 1500kg and accommodate multiple satellites.

3. The aim behind SSLVs is to produce low-cost launch vehicles with short turnaround times.

4. It is known as “the workhorse of ISRO”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

—The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) on its third developmental mission from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.

—The SSLV-D3 accurately deployed the Earth observation satellite EOS-08 into orbit.

—It also signals the end of ISRO/Department of Space’s SSLV Development Project. NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), ISRO’s commercial arm, and India’s private space sector can now manufacture SSLVs for commercial missions.

— ISRO’s Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages. It also has a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage, which can help adjust the velocity as it prepares to place the satellite. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The aim behind SSLVs is to produce low-cost launch vehicles with short turnaround times and minimal infrastructural requirements. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— The SSLV can launch satellites weighing up to 500 kg and accommodate multiple satellites. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation of Indian satellite launch vehicles. PSLVs are also known as “the workhorse of ISRO”. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 3

With reference to the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), consider the following statements:

1. It is a quasi-judicial commission in India.

2. It was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.

3. The Commission is headed only by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

—A family of three had to abandon their travel plans to Edmonton, Canada when Jet Airways went bankrupt and ceased operations in April 2019. Five years later, the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (henceforth, the National Commission) ordered Goibibo, the online travel agency through which the tickets were booked, to issue a refund.

— The National Consumer Disputes Redressal organisation (NCDRC) is a quasi-judicial organisation in India, established in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. Its headquarters is in New Delhi. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

—In accordance with Rule 3(12)(a) of the Tribunal (Conditions of Service) Rules, 2021, the Commission is presided over by a sitting or retired Judge of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India or a sitting or retired Chief Justice of an Hon’ble High Court. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

—Section 23 of the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 states that any individual aggrieved by an NCDRC order may file an appeal with the Supreme Court of India within 30 days.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: ncdrc.nic.in)

QUESTION 4

The central government has recently advised states and Union Territories to use plastic waste in the construction of roads in cities. What are the advantages of using plastic waste in road construction?

1. Higher resistance to deformation

2. Low resistance to water-induced damages

3. Improves stability and strength

4. Improves fatigue life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Explanation

—To tackle the challenge of plastic waste management, the central government has recently advised states and Union Territories to use plastic waste in the construction of roads in cities.

—There are various advantages of using Waste Plastic as a modifier in binders such as:

(i) Higher resistance to deformation

(ii) Higher resistance to water induced damages

(iii) Increased durability and improved fatigue life

(iv) Improved stability and strength

(v) Environment friendly solution

—The government has advised states and UTs to use plastic waste up to 8% of the weight of bitumen in roads within cities, including internal roads of housing colonies and office complexes.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: http://www.npcindia.gov.in)

QUESTION 5

The Port of Odessa was in the news due to an attack on its port infrastructure. It is the largest port of:

(a) Ukraine

(b) Egypt

(c) Norway

(d) Finland

Explanation

—Russian forces attacked port infrastructure in Ukraine’s southern city of Odessa on Wednesday evening, injuring at least two people.

—Ukraine’s port infrastructure has suffered frequent Russian attacks since Russia withdrew last summer from a U.N.-brokered deal that had guaranteed safe shipments of Ukrainian grain.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 6

With reference to the Captagon, consider the following statements:

1. It is a synthetic drug which was originally manufactured in Germany to treat attention deficit disorders.

2. In the last decade, Syria has become the largest producer and exporter of Captagon.

3. It affects the nervous system.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Explanation

—Captagon, commonly known as “poor man’s cocaine,” has emerged as the drug of choice among young adults throughout the Middle East and North Africa.

—Captagon was made illegal in 1986 in most countries and discontinued in medical markets. However, an illicit version of Captagon emerged in eastern Europe and the Middle East in the early 2000s.

— It is a synthetic drug which was originally manufactured in Germany in the 1960s and 1970s where it was intended to treat attention deficit disorders. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—The pill contains fenethylline, a synthetic amphetamine, caffeine, and other stimulants. Fenethylline is metabolised by the body into two molecules: amphetamine and theophylline, both of which are stimulants.

— Its effects on the nervous system are similar to amphetamine. As a psychostimulant, Captagon can induce euphoria, increased wakefulness and increased physical and mental performance. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— Syria has become the largest producer and exporter of Captagon over the last decade, leading experts to name it the Middle East’s narco state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 7

Which of the following statements is not correct about the Tungabhadra river?

(a) The river is formed by two streams joining near Shimoga.

(b) The river flows into the Godavari at Sangamaleshwaram in Andhra Pradesh.

(c) The river forms part of the boundary between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

(d) The river while flowing through its course covers the maximum distance in Karnataka.

Explanation

—A flood alert has been sounded downstream of the Tungabhadra dam in Karnataka’s Koppal district after one of the 33 crest gates of the massive stone masonry dam across the Tungabhadra river was washed away late on Saturday evening (August 10).

—The dam has 33 ‘vertical lift’ type gates that move on rollers embedded in the masonry. The gates are operated from an overhead bridge.

— The Tungabhadra, which is formed at the confluence near Shimoga of two streams, Tunga and Bhadra, that rise in the Western Ghats. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The river flows into the Krishna at Sangamaleshwaram in Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— The river, which forms part of the boundary between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, has a total catchment area of almost 70,000 sq km. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— It flows through 382 km of Karnataka, 58 km of which form the border with Andhra Pradesh, and 91 km of which it flows through Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

—The Tungabhadra reservoir sprawls over an area of 378 sq km primarily in Karnataka’s Vijayanagar district. It is one of the major reservoirs in South India that supplies water for irrigation and industrial use, as well as drinking water to Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 8

The Krishi-Decision Support System (K-DSS) portal, a satellite-based geospatial platform that will provide farmers with information on:

1. Weather

2. Availability of seeds/saplings

3. Health of Soil

4. Level of groundwater

5. Level of reservoir storage

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

—The Centre launched the Krishi-Decision Support System (K-DSS) portal, a satellite-based geospatial platform.

—The platform will offer farmers with information on weather, groundwater levels, soil health, reservoir storage levels, and other data, such as satellite photos.

—The Krishi-DSS was unveiled during the Agriculture Ministry’s National Conference on Space Driven Solutions for Agriculture Transformation in India.

—Space technology and remote sensing-based solutions can help to secure India’s food supply and make farmers profitable.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9

When microplastics remain in the body for the long term, It leads to:

1. Inflammation in the body tissue

2. Weaken the immune system

3. Increases the risk of chronic diseases

4. Gastrointestinal Distress

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

—A revolutionary investigation undertaken by Toxics Link, an environmental research company, discovered the alarming presence of microplastics in every salt and sugar brand tested in India.

—The study looked at ten types of salt, including table, rock, sea, and local variations, as well as five types of sugar purchased from both online and physical retailers.

—These tiny plastic particles ranged in size from 0.1 to 5 millimetres and came in a variety of shapes such as fibres, pellets, films, and pieces.

How do microplastics affect in the long-term?

—Microplastics can inflame the body’s tissues. When these particles enter the body, they activate an immunological response, resulting in inflammation and oxidative damage.

—Continuous exposure to microplastics can impair the immune system. This increases the body’s susceptibility to infections and disorders since the immune system is continually dealing with foreign particles.

—It raises the risk of chronic diseases. Long-term exposure to microplastics has been related to major health consequences such as cancer, reproductive problems, and neurological abnormalities. These particles may interfere with hormone regulation, biological activities, and even gene expression, increasing the risk of chronic illnesses.

—Consuming microplastics can lead to gastrointestinal issues such as bloating, discomfort, and changes in bowel habits.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 10

Consider the following:

1. Taxes on lands and buildings

2. Taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development.

3. Taxes on income other than agricultural income.

4. Taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers.

How many of the above taxes are part of the State List under the seventh schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Explanation

—In a decision with significant financial implications for mining companies, the Supreme Court (SC) gave limited retrospective effect to its recent decision upholding states’ authority to levy taxes on mineral rights and mineral-bearing land, allowing them to collect tax arrears beginning April 1, 2005, but without interest or penalty.

—A 9-judge Constitution bench presided by Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud said that “bearing in mind the consequences that would emanate from the past period…while the states may levy or renew demands of tax, if any, pertaining to Entries 49 and 50 of List II of the Seventh Schedule in terms of the law laid down in the” ruling, “the demand of tax shall not operate on transactions made prior to 1 April 2005”.

—Article 246 of the Constitution mentions three lists in the Seventh Schedule — union, state and concurrent lists.

—Entry 49 of List II concerns “taxes on lands and buildings” and Entry 50 of List II concerns “taxes on mineral rights subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development”.

—Taxes on income other than agricultural income and taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers come under the Union list.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 11

With reference to 70th National Film Awards 2024, consider the following pairs:

1. Best Book on Cinema – Kishore Kumar: The Ultimate Biography

2. Best Actor – Manoj Bajpayee, Gulmohar

3. Best Director – Rishab Shetty, Kantara

4. Best Actress – Nithya Menen in Tiruchitrabalam

Which of the above pairs are not correctly matched?

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

—The winners of the 70th National Film Awards were announced at the National Media Center in New Delhi on Friday. The ceremony will be held at a future date, when the best Indian films produced across languages in the calendar year 2022 will be honoured by the President. Feature and non-feature films certified by the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) between January 1, 2022, and December 31, 2022, were eligible for contention.

Here is the list of some of its winners at the 70th National Film Awards:

FEATURE CATEGORIES

Best Feature Film – Aattam

Best Actor – Rishab Shetty, Kantara

Best Actress – Nithya Menen in Tiruchitrabalam, and Manasi Parekh in Kutch Express

Best Director – Sooraj Barjatya, Uunchai

Best Supporting Actress – Neena Gupta, Uunchai

Best Supporting Actor – Pawan Malhotra, Fouja

Best Feature Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment – Kantara

Best Debut – Fouja, Pramod Kumar

Special Mentions – Manoj Bajpayee in Gulmohar, and Sanjoy Salil Chowdhury for Kadhikan

Best Critic – Deepak Dua

Best Book on Cinema – Kishore Kumar: The Ultimate Biography

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer

QUESTION 12

With reference to India-Russia economic relations, consider the following statements:

1. Russia-India bilateral trade has exceeded Russia-China bilateral trade in 2023.

2. Russia has rapidly ascended to become India’s top oil supplier.

3. ‘Dynamic exchange rate’ of the currencies could help push the trade between the two countries manifold.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

—Aimed at increasing exports to Russia amid widening trade deficit with the country, the Reserve Bank of India is in talks with the Central Bank of the Russian Federation to work out a currency exchange rate, a government official said on Wednesday.

—This comes as Russia has rapidly ascended to become India’s top oil supplier, but Indian exports to Russia have struggled, resulting in a $57 billion trade deficit in the bilateral trade worth $66 billion in FY24. The gap has resulted in Moscow seeking yuan due to its rising demand for Chinese goods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

—An exchange rate is essential for the two countries to settle trade without using the dollar. Currency challenges come due to the trade imbalance between the two countries. In contrast, Russia-China bilateral trade has crossed a record $240 billion in 2023. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

—“Currently there is no exchange mechanism between rouble and rupee. Now there is only cross currency reference which is happening right now. That adds a layer of additional premium so the idea is to avoid that. That will happen only when the two currencies are traded freely at the same exchange rate without referencing,” the official said.

—“Dynamic exchange rate could help push the trade from $4.5 billion to $45 billion. If you want your rupee vostro accounts to be actually functional a direct exchange rate is required. Normally, barring euro and dollar any other exchange mechanism is via a referencing mechanism which is either a dollar or euro,” the official said. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 13

With reference to The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) consider the following statements:

1. The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is released by the NITI Aayog.

2. The ranking framework evaluates institutions on five broad parameters — teaching, learning and resources, research and professional practice, graduation outcomes, outreach, and inclusivity, and perception.

3. IISc Bangalore has been placed first in the research category in 2024 ranking.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Explanation

—The Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan Monday released the ninth edition of the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2024. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

—In the research category, IISc Bengaluru has been placed at the top, followed by IIT Madras and IIT Delhi at the second and third places respectively. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— This year, the evaluation criteria have also been modified. The faculty-to-student ratio has been changed from 1:15 to 1:10 in medical institutes and increased from 1:15 to 1:20 in the state government universities.

— The ranking framework evaluates institutions on five broad parameters — teaching, learning and resources, research and professional practice, graduation outcomes, outreach, and inclusivity, and perception. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 14

Consider the following statements :

Statement I: India’s petroleum product exports to Europe have shifted entirely to the significantly longer and costlier, albeit safer, route around Africa via the Cape of Good Hope.

Statement II: Since late last year, numerous cargo ships have come under attack from the Iran-backed Houthi rebels of Yemen around the Bab el-Mandeb strait.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statemen-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

—With no signs of a let up in threat to ships transiting the Red Sea, India’s petroleum product exports to Europe have shifted entirely to the significantly longer and costlier, albeit safer, route around Africa via the Cape of Good Hope. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—As per ship tracking data, not even one Europe-bound fuel taker that set sail from India in June and July took the Red Sea route, which used to be the mainstay of India’s exports to Europe and other Western markets. In fact, this has been the story largely over the past five months, with the exception of a few isolated cargoes that took the seemingly perilous route in March and May.

—Since late last year, numerous cargo ships have come under attack from the Iran-backed Houthi rebels of Yemen around the Bab el-Mandeb strait, which leads to the Red Sea and Suez Canal, forming the shortest, although narrow, route to the Mediterranean Sea and beyond from the Arab Peninsula, North-East Africa, and the Arabian Sea.

(Source: Kpler)

—The route is seen as an important artery of global goods and energy supplies. The Houthis have been claiming that they are targeting vessels with links to Israel and its allies in response to its military offensive in Gaza. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 15

Nord Stream pipelines run under:

(a) Baltic Sea

(b) Black Sea

(c) Adriatic Sea

(d) North Sea

Explanation

—Almost two years after the September 2022 bombing of the Nord Stream pipelines under the Baltic Sea, it remains unclear who sabotaged the pipes. The destruction of the pipelines that supplied natural gas from Russia to Germany exacerbated the energy crisis in Europe following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Previous Weekly Quiz

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | August 04 to August 10, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 28 to August 03, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 21 to July 27, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 14 to July 20, 2024

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | July 07 to July 13, 2024

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